CCNA Q&A

#1. You are looking at the configuration of several switches in the network. You come across the MAC addresses and the priority configurations of all the switches as listed below. Which of these MAC address and priority combinations will cause a switch to be selected as the root bridge of this network for VLAN 5?

#2. Assume that you have just entered the configure terminal command. You want to configure the speed and duplex of the first 10/100/1000 twisted-pair Ethernet interface on the first Cisco Catalyst switch stack member to 1-Gbps full-duplex mode. Which one of these commands should you enter first?

#3. What command can be used to globally enable CEF on a router?

#4. Which of the following commands list the MAC address table entries for MAC addresses configured by port security? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#5. You are configuring a default route that should direct traffic for unknown networks out of interface Fa 0/0 to a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.100. Which of the following commands should you use to configure the default route?

#6. An engineer configures an ACL but forgets to save the configuration. At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#7. Which one of the following switch functions is needed to pass data between two PCs, each connected to a different VLAN?

#8. You are asked by a network administrator for your expertise. You are told that the network requires the use of a discovery protocol that is an open standard and is supported by multiple vendors, but at the same time, must support auto-discovery of LAN policies, automatic VLAN assignments as well as power management for PoE devices. Which of the following would you recommend?

#9. What wireless security standard replaces PSK with SAE?

#10. How is CDP carried on the network?

#11. Which of these is one of the parameters used to elect a root bridge?

#12. Which Catalyst IOS command can you use to display the addresses in the CAM table?

#13. In a reflection attack, the source IP address in the attack packets is spoofed so that it contains which one of the following entities?

#14. What keyword enables the use of PAT in a NAT configuration?

#15. What is the purpose of breaking a campus network into a hierarchical design?

#16. What is smaller and more efficient than a virtual machine (VM)?

#17. A Cisco lightweight wireless access point is connected to switch interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/20. Which one of the following commands enables you to configure the interface on the switch?

#18. Which of the following cannot be automatically determined and set if the far end of a connection does not support autonegotiation?

#19. Switches provide VLAN connectivity at which layer of the OSI model?

#20. Which one of the following VTP modes does not allow any manual VLAN configuration changes?

#21. Which of the following addresses is a private-use only address

#22. The show port-security interface f0/1 command lists a port status of secure-down. Which one of the following answers must be true about this interface at this time?

#23. Router R1, in ASN 11, learns a BGP route from BGP peer R22 in ASN 22. R1 and then uses BGP to advertise the route to R2, also in ASN 11. What ASNs would you see in the BGP table on R2 for this route?

#24. What information is used to forward frames in a Layer 2 switch?

#25. Routers R1 and R2 are both running OSPFv2, and they are currently authenticated with one another, using MD5, over their Fa 0/0 interfaces. Interface Fa 0/0 on Router R1 is participating in area 0. However, you notice that the OSPF router configuration on Router R1 does not contain the area 0 authentication message-digest command. What command must have been configured under Router R1’s Fa 0/0 interface?

#26. What command configures an IP phone to use VLAN 9 for voice traffic?

#27. Examine the topology shown in the figure. If OSPF, EIGRP, and RIPv2 were all enabled on each interface on each router, which routing protocol would R4 use to determine the best route to 10.77.67.0/24?

#28. Which of the following header fields identify which TCP/IP application gets data received by the computer? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#29. Examine the switch configuration shown. What problem exists with this suggested configuration change?

#30. Which of the following features prevents a route learned on one interface from being advertised back out of that interface?

The Split Horizon feature prevents a route learned on one interface from being advertised back out of that same interface.

#31. A VLAN is which of the following?

#32. Your junior administrator is examining the routing table on a Cisco router and asks you what is the meaning of the D she sees in routing table entries. What does this indicate?

#33. In a properly designed hierarchical network, a broadcast from one PC is confined to which one of the following?

#34. Notice the static route at the end of the routing table highlighted with red text. Which of the following types of routes would you consider this to be?

#35. Given the following address and mask 172.16.10.1 255.255.248.0, what is the broadcast address for the subnet?

#36. The above output occurs on Router R2. Which of the following statements can be confirmed as true based on the output?

#37. When you enable port security for a switch port, what is the default violation mode?

#38. Which of the following are true on a typical Cisco access layer switch? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#39. Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#40. What is the IPv4 address range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 used for?

#41. What is the maximum number of access layer switches that can connect into a single distribution layer switch?

#42. What must be in place before you can route other devices’ IPv6 traffic through a Cisco router?

#43. Which statements are TRUE regarding NTPv4(Choose 2)?

Select all that apply:

#44. Examine the configuration above. What is the next hop for 10.10.20.0/24?

#45. Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an extended IP ACL? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#46. When examining traffic on an IPv6 enabled network using a packet sniffer programme such as Wireshark, you notice several IPv6 packets with destination addresses beginning with FF. What kind of IPv6 traffic is this?

#47. Some IOS commands store passwords as clear text, but you can then encrypt the passwords with the service password-encryption global command. By comparison, other commands store a computed hash of the password instead of storing the password. Comparing the two options, which one answer is the most accurate about why one method is better than the other?

#48. Which one of the following terms means anything that can be considered to be a weakness that can compromise security?

#49. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

#50. Which type of Cisco IOS password encryption uses the Vigenere cipher?

#51. Which RF band is used with 802.11ac?

#52. What is the default administrative distance for internal EIGRP?

#53. Which of the following show interface output information can you use to diagnose a switch port problem?

#54. Which of the following are typical functions of TCP? (Choose four answers.)

Select all that apply:

#55. Which command configures a switch port to form a trunk without using negotiation?

#56. A user has brought this access point from home and connected it to the network. The network sees a single IP as the access point is using NAT to provide IP addresses to its wireless clients. Which of the following could you use to successfully detect and block the use of such a device?

#57. Identify the distance-vector routing protocols from the following. (Choose the two best answers.)

Select all that apply:

#58. What is the authentication method used in many RADIUS environments today?

#59. You are examining the interfaces on a Cisco WLAN controller. You observe an interface named Students-VLAN. What is most likely the type of this interface?

#60. How is a bridging loop best described?

#61. ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0 0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does a router consider the packet to have matched?

#62. What is the name of the “database” used with SNMP?

#63. Which answer describes multilayer switching with CEF?

#64. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet different?

#65. What is a VLAN primarily used for?

#66. Where does a collision domain exist in a switched network?

#67. Examine the topology shown here. How many collision domains exist between the PC and Router 1?

#68. Access list rules are compiled as TCAM entries. When a packet is matched against an access list, in what order are the TCAM entries evaluated?

#69. Which of the following statements regarding ICMP is correct?

#70. Examine the following configuration on Router R1 which is the image above. R1’s show ip route 172.16.4.1 command lists a route with outgoing interface S0/1/1. Host 172.16.3.3 uses Telnet to connect to host 172.16.4.1. What will Router R1 do with the packets generated by host 172.16.3.3 because of the Telnet session, assuming that the packets enter R1’s Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#71. What is the standard maximum frame size in a typical Ethernet network (in bytes)?

#72. In a spoofing attack, which of the following parameters are commonly spoofed? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#73. Which of the following access-list commands permits packets going to any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5?

#74. What networking device provides instructions to APs?

#75. Which of the following is a standardized method of trunk encapsulation?

#76. What protocol is used with an Integrated Services approach to QoS?

#77. If two switches each support all types of trunk encapsulation on a link between them, which one will be negotiated?

#78. What feature does DAI rely on?

#79. Which of the following is required when configuring port security with sticky learning?

#80. What interface configuration mode command instructs an interface to dynamically obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

#81. What QoS technology is often used for congestion management in VoIP environments?

#82. Which of the following provides a secure method to transfer files in a Cisco network?

#83. What prefix is reserved for IPv6 link-local addresses?

#84. What vty line command causes the local username database to be checked for remote access?

#85. What device protects “internal” networks from “external” networks?

#86. Two hosts are connected to switch interfaces Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/1 and 1/0/33, but they cannot communicate with each other. Their IP addresses are in the 192.168.10.0/24 subnet, which is carried over VLAN 10. The show vlan id 10 command generates the above output, The hosts are known to be up and connected. Which of the following reasons might be causing the problem? (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#87. Which of the following is not a valid configuration for the trust boundary of the interface of the Access switch connected to the IP phone?

#88. When a PC is connected to a Layer 2 switch port, how far does the collision domain spread?

#89. Which RSTP port role functions to provide a fast converging replacement for the current root port?

#90. Which of the following correctly describes the Anycast addressing method of IPv6?

#91. What does the IEEE 802.3 standard define?

#92. What does a switch do if a MAC address cannot be found in the CAM table?

#93. Which command configures a Catalyst switch for VTP client mode?

#94. What is a potential underlay protocol for a VXLAN EVPN fabric?

#95. Refer to the network topology above. Your senior network administrator is concerned about network security. He has asked you to ensure that the PC-10 device in VLAN 10 does not overflow the switch’s CAM table. How should you respond? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#96. If a switch port is in the errdisable state, what is the first thing you should do?

#97. How many VTP management domains can a Catalyst switch participate in?

#98. A hierarchical network’s distribution layer aggregates which of the following?

#99. What advantages does the separation of the data and control planes offer with the implementation of an SDN controller?

#100. What is the stratum of a Cisco router if you use the command ntp master to configure it to use its internal clock as a time source?

#101. Policy-Based Routing (PBR) has been enabled on Router R1’s Fa 0/0 interface. Which of the following are true regarding how PBR works? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#102. What port security approach is considered a mix of dynamic and static configuration?

#103. A switch block should be sized according to which two of the following parameters? (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#104. What mechanisms can be used to defend against IP spoofing? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#105. When configuring PVST+, what is true about this topology? (Choose all that apply)

Select all that apply:

#106. Which are true ?

#107. What is the default voice VLAN condition for a switch port?

#108. A switch’s port Gi0/1 has been correctly enabled with port security. The configuration sets the violation mode to restrict. A frame that violates the port security policy enters the interface, followed by a frame that does not. Which of the following answers correctly describe what happens in this scenario? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#109. Which of the following statements is not true about the default VLAN on a switch?

#110. What suite of protocols is often found in use with modern VPN connections?

#111. Which one of the following is needed for VTP communication?

#112. What device protects “internal” networks from “external” networks?

#113. Which of the following types of access lists can you use successfully on an IPv6 network?

#114. Which of the following does not need to match when configuring OSPF version 2 peering?

#115. What global configuration command allows you to disable CDP on an entire Cisco switch?

#116. Examine the figure. What is the Layer 2 destination address?

00:1b:77:12:34:56

#117. What information for a wireless network can you choose not to broadcast?

#118. What interface configuration mode command configures a Cisco router as a DHCP client?

#119. A switch in VTP transparent mode can do which one of the following?

#120. You decided to reduce the size of your existing Layer 2 broadcast domains by creating new VLANs. What network device that forwards packets between those VLANs would be operating (at a minimum), and at which OSI layer?

#121. What transport layer protocol features the use of sequencing and synchronization methods?

#122. Which of the following procedures describes the correct set of steps to successfully configure a router on a stick? (Choose four)

Select all that apply:

#123. Which one of these commands can enable Power over Ethernet to a switch interface?

#124. Which one of the following is an example of a AAA server?

#125. The following terms describe various design options for enterprise connectivity to the Internet. Which of the following imply that the enterprise connects to two or more ISPs? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#126. Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode?

#127. Create an extended ACE that permits Telnet traffic from a Telnet server on the network 10.10.10.0/24, going to a host on network 192.168.1.0/24. Use ACL 101.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

#128. Interface Fa 0/0 on your router has obtained an IP address through DHCP. You notice that in addition to an IP address assigned to interface Fa 0/0, your router now has a default static route configured. What command can you issue to prevent a router from automatically installing a default static route based on default gateway information learned through DHCP?

#129. How many layers are recommended in the hierarchical campus network design model?

#130. How do you configure a Cisco router to use its internal clock as the reference time source and then become an NTP server?

#131. Suppose an attacker sends a series of packets toward a destination IP address with the TCP SYN flag set but sends no other packet types. Which of the following attacks is likely taking place?

#132. You have connected to a Cisco IOS device remotely via an SSH connection. You’d like to observe syslog events as they occur in real-time. Which of the following commands can you use to enable any active syslog events to appear on the command line in such a scenario?

#133. What is the default administrative distance of iBGP?

#134. Which of the following access-list commands matches all packets sent from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23?

#135. Which of the following are network parameters that can be configured on a client via DHCP? (Choose three)

Select all that apply:

#136. End-user PCs should be connected into which of the following hierarchical layers?

#137. What command permits you to see your locally used OSPF routes?

#138. Access list contents can be merged into which of the following?

#139. How many distribution switches should be built into each switch block?

#140. Which VLANs are allowed on a trunk link by default?

#141. What is the privilege level for the user in the command username johns secret cisco123?

#142. When configuring syslog logging on a Cisco device, if the logging trap level is not configured, which syslog messages will be recorded?

#143. How many syslog levels are there with Cisco equipment?

#144. Which of the following incorrectly describes a native VLAN?

#145. Which one or more of the following are the components of a typical switch block?

#146. Which command displays a quick view of OSPF neighbor status?

#147. Class C network 200.1.1.0/24 was allocated to an ISP that operated primarily in Asia. That ISP then assigned this entire Class C network to one of its Asian customers. Network 200.1.2.0/24 has yet to be assigned to any ISP. Which of the following is most likely to be true?

#148. Based on the 802.1Q standard, all frames sent between the two switches will have a VLAN tag and will be placed on the appropriate VLAN once the other end of the trunk is reached. If SW1 sends a frame to SW2 without a tag, what will SW2 do with it? (choose two)

Select all that apply:

#149. What type of modern computer threat involves the use of zombies or botnets?

#150. Which of the following is not a step for supporting SSH connections on a Cisco router?

#151. A laptop inside your network has an IP address of 10.1.1.241. Using NAT, a router translates the 10.1.1.241 private IP address into 198.51.100.54, a public IP address, as the laptop is connecting to a web server on the Internet. The web server has an IP address of 203.0.113.10. What type of address is 203.0.113.10 in this scenario?

An outside global address represents a device outside of a network with a globally
routable address. In this scenario, the web server’s IP address of 203.0.113.10 would be
an outside global address.

An inside local address represents a device inside of a network with an address that
is not routable on the public Internet. In this scenario, the laptop’s IP address of
10.1.1.241 would be an inside local address.

An inside global address represents a device on the inside of our network with an
address that is a globally routable address. In this scenario, the laptop’s translated
address of 198.51.100.54 would be an inside global address.

An outside local address represents a device on the outside of a network that has an
address that is not routable on the public Internet. For example, if NAT were being
performed at a remote site, the destination device at the remote site would have an outside
local address. In the scenario presented in this question, there is no outside local address.

#152. Which is not a major menu option in Cisco DNA Center?

#153. Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used with standard numbered IP ACLs? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#154. What is the purpose of the command service timestamps log datetime msec?

#155. What is the last usable host address, given the IP address and subnet mask 172.16.10.101 with 255.255.224.0?

172.16.31.254

#156. What technology provides multiple default gateways in a redundant manner and automates load sharing?

#157. In the core layer of a hierarchical network, which of the following are aggregated?

#158. Which of the following is not an HTTP method used with REST APIs?

#159. When IPv6 is enabled on the interface of a network device, a Link Local address is assigned to it. Which of the following methods can be used to assign a Link Local address to an IPv6 enabled interface? (Choose three)

Select all that apply:

#160. A colleague is attempting to implement IPv6 on the enterprise network for which he is responsible. He asks for your advice and wants to know if IPv6 offers a similar feature to IPv4 private non-routable addresses such as the 192.168.0.0 and 10.0.0.0. What should you answer him?

#161. Identify the valid types of OSPFv3 authentication supported in Cisco IOS. (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#162. What technology is used to allow a switch port to carry the traffic of multiple data VLANs from one device to another in a Cisco network?

#163. Which statement about PortFast on Cisco switches is incorrect?

#164. Which of the following features can provide router redundancy?

#165. What Cisco wireless controller feature simplifies controller configuration by no longer requiring the setup of primary and secondary ports for each interface?

#166. Which of the following are considered private IPv4 addresses?

Select all that apply:

#167. What is the maximum cable distance for an Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet connection over unshielded twisted pair cabling?

#168. Which of these protocols dynamically negotiates trunking parameters?

#169. Which of the following commands would you implement on R1 in order to statically configure a default route via the S0/0/0 interface?

#170. What are the reasons a duplex mismatch can be difficult to find?

Select all that apply:

#171. Which are the most important aspects to consider when designing the core layer in a large network? (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#172. In a Catalyst switch, frames can be filtered with access lists for security and QoS purposes. This filtering occurs according to which of the following?

#173. You have configured DHCP snooping on a switch, and have configured the appropriate ports as trusted. However, you are concerned that an attacker may begin bombarding the network with various types of DHCP messages. Which of the following statements is correct about the functionality of DHCP snooping and which would correctly safeguard a network from DHCP related attacks? (Choose two)

Select all that apply:

#174. Which of the following might present a VTP problem?

#175. You have configured your gi0/1 Cisco switch port as follows:

#176. What architectural model is used with Cisco ACI?

#177. What command does a client use to enable stateless autoconfiguration of IPv6 address information on an interface?

#178. Which of the following is true about this response to an ICMP echo request?

#179. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?

Select all that apply:

#180. Which of the following functions is performed by both TCP and UDP?

#181. What command allows you to confirm the IP address and mask assigned to an interface?

#182. What evidence can be seen when a switch block is too large? (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#183. What traditional 802.1D STP port state does not exist in 802.1w RSTP?

#184. What size are the mask and pattern fields in a TCAM entry?

#185. Which one of the following is a valid VTP advertisement?

#186. Which of the following are disadvantages of the three-layer hierarchical architecture when applied to datacenters? Choose all that apply.

Select all that apply:

#187. What command would you use on a Cisco Layer 2 switch to verify errors regarding sending or receiving frames?

#188. Which of the following are common types of core, or backbone, designs? (Choose all that apply.)

Select all that apply:

#189. Multilayer switches using CEF are based on which of these techniques?

#190. If a VTP server is configured for VTP Version 2, what else must happen for successful VTP communication in a domain?

#191. which of the following is essentially a standards based version of HSRP?

#192. Examine the topology shown in the figure. The PC has sent a ping request to the server. Which devices in the network operate only at the physical layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#193. Refer to the Above image of an IPv4 header and its various fields: Which field is responsible for verifying that packets that arrive out-of-order are reassembled in the correct order?

#194. Which of the following statements concerning this output is true?

#195. Which of these is not a standard type of gigabit interface converter (GBIC) or small form factor pluggable (SFP) module?

#196. In which OSI layer should devices in the distribution layer typically operate?

#197. A Cisco switch is currently in VTP Client mode. You issue the vlan 100 command in global configuration mode to create a new VLAN. What is the result?

#198. Ethernet autonegotiation determines which of the following?

#199. Within the framework of SNMPv2, which of the following statements is correct as far as SNMP traps and SNMP Get messages are concerned?

#200. Examine the access list shown here. What is the issue with this access list?

#201. For a Catalyst switch to offer Power over Ethernet to a device, what must occur?

#202. What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

#203. Which Catalyst IOS switch command is used to assign a port to a VLAN?

#204. What is the default lease duration for a Cisco DHCP server?

#205. Which VLAN number is never eligible for VTP pruning?

#206. Which of the following are examples of traffic that can be created as part of an IP Service-Level Agreement operation? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#207. CSMA/CD technology is critical for what type of Ethernet network?

#208. What do you call data that includes the Layer 4 protocol header, and data given to Layer 4 by the upper layers, not including any headers and trailers from Layers 1 to 3? (Choose two answers.)

Select all that apply:

#209. A new Layer 2 switch in its default configuration has just been powered up. In addition to a console connection, there are two Windows hosts and an IP phone (using PoE) connected to its Ethernet ports. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

Select all that apply:

#210. A laptop inside your network has an IP address of 10.1.1.241. Using NAT, a router translates the 10.1.1.241 private IP address into 198.51.100.54, a public IP address, as the laptop is connecting to a web server on the Internet. The web server has an IP address of 203.0.113.10. What type of address is 10.1.1.241 in this scenario?

An outside global address represents a device outside of a network with a globally
routable address. In this scenario, the web server’s IP address of 203.0.113.10 would be
an outside global address.

An inside local address represents a device inside of a network with an address that
is not routable on the public Internet. In this scenario, the laptop’s IP address of
10.1.1.241 would be an inside local address.

An inside global address represents a device on the inside of our network with an
address that is a globally routable address. In this scenario, the laptop’s translated
address of 198.51.100.54 would be an inside global address.

An outside local address represents a device on the outside of a network that has an
address that is not routable on the public Internet. For example, if NAT were being performed at a remote site, the destination device at the remote site would have an outside
local address. In the scenario presented in this question, there is no outside local address.

#211. What is the term for an API that communicates from a network management station to the SDN controller?

#212. When migrating from a PVST+ to Rapid-PVST+, which PVST+ features can be disabled, because similar features are built into Rapid-PVST+? (Choose the two best answers.)

Select all that apply:

#213. At what layer are traditional 10-Mbps Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, and Gigabit Ethernet the same?

#214. What device can use a dual-band approach and 802.11 standards for connecting end users to the network?

#215. Which of the following values can be used to mark a packet for QoS? (Choose two)

Select all that apply:

#216. The above output occurs on Router R1. IP SLA operation 1 uses an ICMP echo operation type, with a default frequency of 60 seconds. The operation pings from address 1.1.1.1 to address 2.2.2.2. Which of the following answers is true regarding IP SLA and object tracking on R1?

#217. How is a playbook expressed in Ansible?

#218. In a switch, frames are placed in which buffer after forwarding decisions are made?

#219. Which one of the following statements is true about a Catalyst switch?

#220. Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.240.0?

#221. Interface Fa 0/0 on your router has obtained an IP address through DHCP. You notice that in addition to an IP address assigned to interface Fa 0/0, your router now has a default static route configured. What is the administrative distance (AD) of that route?

#222. Which of the following devices performs transparent bridging?

#223. What is the Cisco proprietary method for trunk encapsulation?

#224. When an interface gets congested, it is possible that all TCP connections traversing that interface will experience TCP slow start. Packets will be dropped and then all TCP sessions will revert to a small window size, thus reducing the efficiency of the link. What is this behavior called?

#225. Which one of the following is a standards-based protocol that can be used to discover and collect information about connected devices?

#226. What type of Network Address Translation (NAT) allows a collection of inside local addresses to share a single inside global address, for use when communicating on the Internet?

#227. Select all the parameters that decide whether to accept new VTP information.

Select all that apply:

#228. which of the following is not a Catalyst switch VTP mode?

#229. Two neighboring routers are each configured with a key chain. What element(s) of the key chain must match for the two routers to mutually authenticate? (Choose all that apply.)

#230. Which of the following describes the most significant change to SNMP when comparing version 2 with version 3?

#231. What component does Ansible use to gather plays that perform tasks on a network?

#232. What do you use in dynamic NAT configuration in order to identify the traffic you intend to translate?

#233. How many different VLANs can an 802.1Q trunk support?

#234. An actual potential to exploit a vulnerability is known as which one of the following terms?

#235. On which interface and in which direction should this access list be applied in order to permit traffic from the 192.168.12.0/24 subnet to reach the 2.2.2.0/24 subnet?

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